Psalms 142:1

Absalom is not specified in Roman Septuagint, &c., (Calmet) though it be in other copies. (Haydock) --- The latter part of the title has been added by the Greeks. (St. Hilary) --- If David composed the psalm, on occasion of his son's revolt, he considered it as a punishment of his former transgression. The Fathers explain it of Jesus Christ, who suffered for our sins. (Berthier) --- It might also relate to the captives, (Ferrand) or to the same event as the preceding psalm, (Bossuet) though there is no reason for abandoning the title. (Calmet) --- Justice. Or mercy. (St. Chrysostom) --- Absalom had no just cause of complaint, (Haydock) and God had promised to protect David on the throne.