Romans 3:29,30

“ Or is he the God of the Jews only?is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also: seeing it is one God, who shall bring out the justification of the circumcised from faith, and who shall bring about that of the uncircumcised by the faith. ”

The meaning of the ἤ, or, when prefixed to a question by Paul, is familiar to us: “ Or if you do not admit that”...? This question therefore goes to show that the negation of what precedes violates the Monotheism so dear to the Jews, and in which they gloried. The genitive ᾿Ιουδαίων, of Jews, used without the article, denotes the category. Meyer refuses to take this word as the complement of the predicate Θεός, God, understood; but wrongly; the natural meaning is: “Is God the God of the Jews?” Comp. Romans 2:29, 1 Corinthians 14:33, and Luke 20:38 (with Matthew 22:32). Otherwise we should require to apply here the phrase εἶναί τινος, to be the property of (to belong to), which does not correspond to the relation between God and man.

To the question: Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Paul could answer with assurance: yes, of the Gentiles also; for the entire Old Testament had already drawn from Monotheism this glorious inference. The psalms celebrated Jehovah as the God of all the earth, before whom the nations walk with trembling (Psalms 96-98, 100). Jeremiah called Him (Romans 10:7) the King of nations; and the apostle himself had demonstrated in chap. 1 the existence of a universal divine revelation, which is the first foundation of universalism.