1 Corinthians 7:1

Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote: It is good for. man not to touch. woman.

'Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote' -'The matters which they raised can be gathered in part from Paul's introducing them successively with "now concerning"; by this criterion they included: marriage and divorce (1 Corinthians 7:1), virginity (1 Corinthians 7:25), food offered to idols (1 Corinthians 8:1), spiritual gifts (1 Corinthians 12:1), the collection for Jerusalem (1 Corinthians 16:1), and Apollos (1 Corinthians 16:12)' [Note:. F.F. Bruce p. 66]

'It is good for. man not to touch. woman' -The first question that Paul answers. Is this the slogan of some in Corinth, that Paul agrees with (to. point), or Paul's own original statement? In the end, the conclusion is the same, Paul agrees with it (to. point). When considering that this chapter contains other statements similar to the above (1 Corinthians 7:8 "it is good.."; 1 Corinthians 7:26); the evidence seems to tell us that this is Paul's own statement. Now let's define what Paul is and isn't saying in the above expression.

'good' -'Not merely expedient, but morally salutary.' (Vincent p. 217) 'Honourable, morally befitting' (Gr. Ex. N.T. p. 822) 2570. kalos kal-os'; of uncertain affinity; properly, beautiful, but chiefly (figuratively) good (literally or morally), i.e. valuable or virtuous (for appearance or use, and thus distinguished from 18, which is properly intrinsic): -X better, fair, good(-ly), honest, meet, well, worthy.

-'Morally good, pleasing to God; it can also mean 'what is expedient (what is profitable).' (Willis p. 209)

'What does "good" mean? The word constantly speaks of what is morally excellent, what is honorable (Arndt, 400). But it is also used to speak of "advantage" as in 1 Corinthians 9:15. So what does the statement mean? Does it mean: "It is honorable and morally excellent for. man to choose celibacy?", or, "It is advantageous for. man to choose celibacy"? Given the right context Paul would insist both were correct.' (McGuiggan p. 91)

'touch' -680. haptomai hap'-tom-ahee; reflexive of 681; properly, to attach oneself to, i.e. to touch (in many implied relations): -touch.

-a euphemism for sexual intercourse. And since such activity is only allowed in marriage (1 Corinthians 7:2), Paul must here be saying, 'It is good for. man to remain unmarried', i.e. choose the celibate life.

Points to Note:

1. Jerome erroneously took the above expression to mean, 'if it is good not to touch. woman, it is therefore evil to touch one.' The problem with this view, is that it contradicts the Bible.

2. Paul is not placing celibacy in. position of moral superiority over marriage. Rather he is saying that celibacy is morally acceptable. God also labels "marriage" to be "good". (Genesis 1:31; Genesis 2:18; 1 Timothy 4:1; Hebrews 13:4 "Let marriage be held in honor among all..")

Concerning the question of the "moral" status of celibacy, Paul says that it is "good". We should note that in this chapter Paul doesn't "force" celibacy or marriage upon the single Christian.

3. 'Our present social attitudes encourage marriage to such an extent that anyone who chooses not to marry is looked upon as. freak.' (Willis p. 209) 'Paul is not disparaging marriage..but defending celibacy against those who thought it inhuman.' (Gr. Ex. N.T. p. 822)