1 Corinthians 7:39

1 Corinthians 7:39. wife is bound for so long time as her husband liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is free to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.

'bound' -'The perfect..means that, once bound by the marriage tie...remains thus bound as long as her husband lives, which is self-evident from 1 Corinthians 7:10-11.' (Lenski p. 331)

This verse indicates that something more than just civil law or mutual agreement "binds" husband and wife together. (Matthew 19:6)

'so long time as her husband liveth' -'Someone apparently has asked something about the duration of marriage. Is. woman bound to. man even after his death? In essence, is she compelled to remain celibate?' (McGuiggan p. 118) 'The Corinthians may have asked. supplementary question about the remarriage of widows, calling for. more detailed answer than in verses 8-9.' (F.F. Bruce p. 77)

'so long time' -compare with the "while" of Romans 7:2.

'The first statement, "A woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives", runs so counter to Jewish understanding and practice at this point in history that it almost certainly reflects Paul's understanding of Jesus' own instructions....there is no argument here, simply. matter-of-fact reiteration of. point made previously (1 Corinthians 7:10).' [Note:. Fee p. 355]

'she is free to be married' -'The widow is permitted to remarry (though many Jews didn't like that view).' (McGuiggan p. 118)

'to whom she will' -this woman (being. widow) had full freedom to make her choice. In contrast to. daughter still at home.

'only in the Lord' -various views exist as to what this statement means.

1. 'Forbids any union formed with un-Christian motives'. Similar views, 'Yet many take "in the Lord" in. wider sense, namely, "in. Christian way", or "in the fear of the Lord", asking his blessing.' (Lenski p. 331)

But wouldn't this type of "in the Lord", apply to all and any marriages? Wouldn't it be wrong to enter any marriage with wrong motives? Shouldn't all Christians enter any marriage "in. Christian" way? This leads me to conclude that "in the Lord" means, "marry. Christian".

But then another point needs to be settled. Is this "in the Lord". command for all time, or does it only apply to the then present distress?

2. Some see this limitation (only in the Lord) as being applicable only during the present distress. 'The person who married. non-Christian in. time when Christians were being persecuted foolishly brought unnecessary problems upon himself. Hence, Paul counsels that the widows should marry Christians.' (Willis p. 258)

'This is not so much. command that she may not marry outside the Lord as it is good sense..Such. woman lives from such. radically different perspective and value system from that of. pagan husband..If she becomes. believer after marriage, then she should maintain the marriage with the hope of winning him to the Lord (1 Corinthians 7:12-16); but it makes no sense from Paul's perspective for one to engage such. marriage once one is. Christian.' (Fee p. 356)

McGuiggan has. good comment on 2 Corinthians 6:14. 'That's why. don't believe he has marriage in view in 2 Corinthians 6:14. Because there he urges (commands) separation and in 1 Corinthians 7:12 he forbids it.' (p. 119)