Till they see the kingdom of God come with power

(εως αν ιδωσιν την βασιλειαν του θεου εληλυθυιαν εν δυναμε). In Mark 8:38 Jesus clearly is speaking of the second coming. To what is he referring in Mark 9:1? One is reminded of Mark 13:32; Matthew 24:36 where Jesus expressly denies that anyone save the Father himself (not even the Son) knows the day or the hour. Does he contradict that here? It may be observed that Luke has only "see the kingdom of God," while Matthew has "see the Son of man coming" (ερχομενον, present participle, a process). Mark has "see the kingdom of God come" (εληλυθυιαν, perfect active participle, already come) and adds "with power." Certainly the second coming did not take place while some of those standing there still lived. Did Jesus mean that? The very next incident in the Synoptic Gospels is the Transfiguration on Mount Hermon. Does not Jesus have that in mind here? The language will apply also to the coming of the Holy Spirit on the great Day of Pentecost. Some see in it a reference to the destruction of the temple. It is at least open to question whether the Master is speaking of the same event in Mark 8:38; Mark 9:1.

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Old Testament