Romans 3:9

Are we better [π ρ ο ε χ ο μ ε θ α]. Rev., are we in worse case than they? Render, with the American Revisers, are we in better case than they, i e., have we any advantage ? The Rev. takes the verb as passive - are we surpassed ? which would require the succeeding verses to show that the Gentiles are not better than the Jews; whereas they show that the Jews are not better than the Gentiles. Besides, nothing in the context suggests such a question. 27 Paul has been showing that the Old Testament privileges, though giving to the Jews a certain superiority to the Gentiles, did not give them any advantages in escaping the divine condemnation. After such showing it was natural that the question should be renewed : Do the Jews have any advantage ?

We have before proved [π ρ ο η τ ι α σ α μ ε θ α]. The reference is not to logical proof, but to forensic accusation. The simple verb means to charge as being the cause [α ι τ ι α] of some evil : hence to accuse, impeach. Rev., correctly, we before laid to the charge.