Romans 3:1-8

IF THIS BE SO WHAT ADVANTAGE IS THERE IN BEING A JEW? (3:1-8). In a series of questions Paul now takes up the points just made, the claimed advantage of being a Jew (Romans 2:17) and the claimed advantage of circumcision (Romans 2:25). His reply is that both are true simply because it was to the Jew... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:1

‘What advantage then does the Jew have? Or what is the profit of circumcision?' The question then arises that if the Jew who is unrighteous has no special privileges because of his unrighteousness (Romans 2:11; Romans 2:21), and if physical circumcision loses its validity for man when he is unright... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:2

‘Much every way. First of all, that they were entrusted with the oracles of God.' Paul's reply is simple, that it was because they were Jews and because they were circumcised physically, demonstrating that they were at least outwardly within the covenant, that God had entrusted to them ‘the oracles... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:3

‘For what if some were without faith? Will their want of faith make of none effect (render inoperative) the faithfulness of God?' Taking this as the question of the supposed antagonist, the questioner is now arguing that the unfaithfulness of some among the Jews did not render inoperative God's fai... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:4

‘Let it not be. Yes let God be found true, but every man a liar; as it is written, “That you might be justified in your words, and might prevail when you come into judgment.”' The thought that God might be unfaithful was inconceivable to Paul. His reply to the expressed doubt is vehement. ‘Let it n... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:5

‘But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unrighteous who visits with wrath? (I speak after the manner of men.) OK, says the theoretical questioner, if that is so it means that our unrighteousness is commending the righteousness of God. And that being s... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:6

‘Let it not be. For then how will God judge the world?' Paul's reply is then again to refer indirectly to Scripture. What has been suggested could not possibly be true because Scripture says that God will judge the world (e.g. Genesis 18:25; Deuteronomy 32:4; Job 8:3; Job 34:10). And He could not j... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:7

‘But if the truth of God through my lie abounds to his glory, why am I also still judged as a sinner?' But the questioner persists. Surely if the consequence of the Jews being untrue highlights the fact that God is true and therefore abounds to His glory, it would be unjust of God to see them as si... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:8

‘And why not (as we are slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say), “Let us do evil, that good may come?” whose condemnation is just.' Paul now makes clear that he has had enough of such nonsense. Why not, he asks, then say ‘Let us do evil that good may come?' something that was self-ev... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:9

‘What then? Are we better than they? No, in no way, for we before laid to the charge both of Jews and Greeks, that they are all under sin,' Those who had been listening to this argument may (at least theoretically) have been beginning to think, well surely this makes us better than those Jews? Paul... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:9-20

BOTH JEW AND GENTILE ARE IN THE SAME POSITION. ALL ARE UNDER SIN (3:9-20). Paul does not want any of his readers to think therefore that this puts them in a better position than the Jews, for as he has already demonstrated they are all ‘under sin'. So he continues to underline that fact by the citi... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:10-12

THE GENERAL DESCRIPTION OF MAN'S SINFULNESS (3:10-12). These verses are very much a rough paraphrase of Psalms 14:1 which runs as follows in MT: “ _There is none who does good. The Lord looked down from Heaven on the children of men to see if there were any who did understand, who did seek after G... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:10-18

‘As it is written, There is none righteous, No, not one, There is none who understands, There is none who seeks after God, They have all turned aside, They are together become unprofitable, There is none who does good, No, not, so much as one. (Psalms 14:1 b, Psalms 14:2) Their throat is an... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:19

‘Now we know that whatever things the law says, it speaks to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may be brought under the judgment of God,' The main emphasis here is on the Law as representing the Scriptures (it includes the citations above which come from... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:19,20

THUS THE LAW ENSURES THAT ALL ARE FOUND GUILTY BEFORE GOD (3:19-20). The consequence of all that has been described is that all men without exception are found by ‘the Law' (the Scriptures) to be guilty before God. There is none righteous, no not one.... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:20

‘Because by the works of the law will no flesh be justified (accounted as in the right) in his sight, for through the law comes the knowledge of sin.' And this results from the fact that no flesh can be seen as ‘accounted as in the right' in His sight by keeping ‘the works of the Law', simply becaus... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:21

‘But now apart from the law a righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets,' This righteousness of God that God has provided is apart from the Law. It is not obtained as a result of observing the Law. It has no connection with the Law. And yet it has been ma... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:21-25

GOD HAS PROVIDED A WAY BY WHICH MEN CAN BE ACCOUNTED AS IN THE RIGHT BEFORE GOD (3:21-4:25). Paul has spent a considerable time, from Romans 1:18 onwards, in demonstrating that all are under sin (weighed down under it and condemned by it). And he has shown that this includes the common herd of idola... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:22

‘Even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ unto all them who believe, for there is no distinction,' And this righteousness of God is through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. The reason for adding ‘to all who believe' is in order to include the Gentiles. ‘Faith in Jesus th... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:23

‘For all have sinned, and are falling short of the glory of God,' The reason why this righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ is necessary is now given. It is because, as had been demonstrated in Romans 1:18 to Romans 3:20, all have sinned and are continually revealing it by falling short... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:24

‘Being justified (accounted as in the right) freely by his grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus,' But on receiving the righteousness of God which is through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe (Romans 3:22), any one of the ‘all' who have been demonstrated as sinful (Romans 3:23... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:25,26

‘Whom God set forth to be a propitiation, through faith, in his blood, to show his righteousness because of the passing over of the sins done aforetime, in the forbearance of God, for the showing, I say, of his righteousness at this present season, that he might himself be just, and the justifier (r... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:27

‘Where then is the glorying? It is excluded. By what manner of law? Of works? No, but by a law of faith.' What then of the Jews glorying/boasting in their special status? Or Gentiles glorying in their asceticism or benevolence which they considered made them deserving of God's favour? Both are excl... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:28

‘We reckon therefore that a man is justified (reckoned as in the right) by faith apart from the works of the law.' So Paul can now come to his important conclusion. And that is that a man is accepted as righteous before God, not on account of His works, (nor even on account of his faith), but as a... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:29

‘Or is God the God of Jews only? Is he not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also,' For if salvation were to be by the works of the Law, which included circumcision, it would mean that God was only the God of the Jews. But Paul immediately raises an objection to this idea. He answers it by... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:30

‘If so be that God is one, and he will reckon the circumcision as in the right by faith (out of faith), and the uncircumcision through faith.' And the grounds for his confident answer is that God is one. This was indeed what the Jew boasted about constantly, ‘YHWH our God, YHWH is one' (Deuteronomy... [ Continue Reading ]

Romans 3:31

‘Do we then make the law of none effect through faith? Let it not be. No, we establish the law.' He now deals with a final objection. Is he not making the law of none effect by making salvation obtainable through faith? And his reply is that, far from that being true, on the contrary he is establish... [ Continue Reading ]

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