I wrote this very thing

(εγραψα τουτο αυτο). Is this (and εγραψα in verses 2 Corinthians 2:4; 2 Corinthians 2:9; 2 Corinthians 2:12) the epistolary aorist referring to the present letter? In itself that is possible as the epistolary aorist does occur in the N.T. as in 2 Corinthians 8:18; 2 Corinthians 9:3 (Robertson, Grammar, p. 854f.). If not epistolary aorist as seems improbable from the context and from 2 Corinthians 7:8-12, to what Epistle does he refer? To 2 Corinthians 2:1 or to a lost letter? It is possible, of course, that, when Paul decided not to come to Corinth, he sent a letter. The language that follows in verses 2 Corinthians 2:3; 2 Corinthians 2:4; 2 Corinthians 7:8-12 can hardly apply to I Corinthians.Should have sorrow

(λυπην σχω). Second aorist (ingressive) active subjunctive of εχω, should get sorrow, after ινα μη negative final particles.From them of whom

(αφ' ων). Antecedent omitted, απο τουτων αφ' ων (from those from whom).I ought

(εδε με). Imperfect for unrealized present obligation as often and like English.Having confidence

(πεποιθως). Second perfect active participle of πειθω (2 Corinthians 1:9).

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Old Testament