1 Corinthians 14:5. Now I would have you all speak with tongues, but rather that ye should prophesy ‘because tongues require an interpreter, else they are a heap of unmeaning sounds, whereas by prophecy all may at once benefit.'

Note. Could anything make it clearer that “speaking with tongues” meant speaking in articulate and actually spoken languages, unknown to the speaker save through an interpreter himself or another? All other explanations are forced and inconsistent with the plain facts of the case, while some of them carry absurdity on their face.

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Old Testament