Romans 9:14

Romans 9:14. What shall we say then? This question introduces an objection, as in chaps. Romans 3:5; Romans 6:1; Romans 7:7, which is then stated in the form of another question. The usual indignant denial follows, and then the detailed answer (Romans 9:15-18). In Romans 9:19, etc.,, a further objection (growing out of the answer to this one) is raised and answered. The question is not put in the mouth of an objector, still less is it represented as the language of an unbelieving Jew. The connection of thought is natural: may it not be said that the exercise of this free choice on the part of God, as already illustrated, involves unrighteousness in Him? Let it never be ！ He only is unrighteous who is under obligations which he does not fulfil; but God is under no obligations to His creatures who have become sinful, i.e., opposed to Him. The blessings they receive of Him are not their right, but of His mercy, as the words of God Himself in the Old Testament plainly show. The underlying principle, already assumed in this Epistle, is that God's will is the absolute and eternal norm of righteousness, and all that He does is necessarily right (see references). If there were any superior norm of righteousness to which this Personal God is subject then He would cease to be God.

Is there unrighteousness with God? In making this choice of individuals, the objection ends here.

Let it never be. See chap. Romans 3:4, etc. Some of the fathers took Romans 9:15-18 as a renewal of the objection, but the close connection, with ‘for' and ‘ so then,' as well as the Scripture citations, show that those verses give the reason for this indignant denial.